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Babylonian Talmud: Tractate NedarimFolio 70aNow, if you say, he did not in fact declare thus, what if he declares, 'It be confirmed unto thee to-morrow';1 do we rule, he is unable to annul it for to-morrow, since [by implication] he confirmed it for today;2 or perhaps, since he did not state, 'It be confirmed unto thee to-day,' by declaring, 'It be annulled unto thee to-morrow,' he really meant from to-day? Now, should you say that even so, since he [implicitly] confirmed it to-day,3 it is as though in force to-morrow too,4 what if he declares, 'It be confirmed unto thee for an hour?' Do we say, It is as though he declared, 'It be annulled unto thee thereafter'; or perhaps, he in fact did not say thus to her? Should you rule, he did not in fact declare thus, what if he did explicitly annul it?5 Do we say, Since he confirmed it, he confirmed it [for good]; or perhaps, as he is empowered to confirm and annul it the whole day, if he says, 'It be annulled unto thee after an hour,' his statement is efficacious? — Come and hear: [If a woman vows], 'Behold, I will be a nazirite'; and her husband on hearing it, exclaimed 'And l'; he cannot [subsequently] annul it.6 But why so? Let us say that his exclamation, 'And I,' referred to himself only [viz.,] that he would be a nazirite, but as for her vow, 'Behold, I will be a nazirite,' he confirmed it [but] for one hour;7 whilst thereafter, if he wishes to annul it, why cannot he do so? Surely it is because having confirmed it, he confirmed it [for good]! — No. He [the Tanna of that Mishnah] holds that every 'And I' is as though one declares, 'It be permanently confirmed unto thee.'
MISHNAH. IF THE FATHER DIES, HIS AUTHORITY DOES NOT PASS OVER TO THE HUSBAND; BUT IF THE HUSBAND DIES, HIS AUTHORITY PASSES OVER TO THE FATHER. IN THIS RESPECT, THE FATHER'S POWER IS GREATER THAN THE HUSBAND'S. BUT IN ANOTHER, THE HUSBAND'S POWER IS GREATER THAN THAT OF THE FATHER, FOR THE HUSBAND CAN ANNUL [HER VOWS] AS BOGERETH8 BUT THE FATHER CANNOT ANNUL HER VOWS AS BOGERETH.9
GEMARA. What is the reason?'10 — Because the Writ saith, In her youth, she is in her father's house.11 IF THE HUSBAND DIES, HIS AUTHORITY PASSES OVER TO HER FATHER. Whence do we know this?12 — Said Rabbah:13 Because it is written, And if she be at all to an husband and her vows be upon her:14
Nedarim 70bhence the [vows made by her] previously to her second betrothal are assimilated to [those made] previously to her first betrothal;1 just as those made before the first betrothal, the father can annul alone, so also those made before the second betrothal, the father can annul alone. But perhaps this is only in the case of vows which were unknown to the arus,2 but those which were known to the arus the father is not able to annul?3 — As to vows unknown to the arus, these4 follow from 'in her youth, she is in her father's house'.5IN THIS RESPECT, THE FATHER'S POWER IS GREATER THAN THE HUSBAND'S etc. How is this meant?6 Shall we say, that he betrothed her7 whilst a na'arah, and then she became a bogereth? But consider: [her father's] death frees her from her father's authority, and the bogereth stage frees her from her father's authority; then just as at death, his authority does not pass over to her husband, so on puberty, his authority should not pass over to her husband?8 Again, if he betrothed her as a bogereth, surely that has already been taught once, viz., A bogereth who tarried twelve months?9 (Now this is self-contradictory. You say, 'a bogereth who tarried twelve months': in the case of a bogereth, why twelve months? thirty days are sufficient?10 — Read: A bogereth and one [viz., a na'arah] who tarried twelve months.) But still the difficulty remains?11 — I can answer either that here it is specifically taught, whilst there bogereth is mentioned because it is desired to state the controversy between R. Eliezer and the Rabbis. Or, alternatively, bogereth [there] is specifically taught; but [here], because the first clause states 'IN THIS RESPECT etc.,' a second [contrary] clause IN THIS RESPECT, is added.12 - To Next Folio -
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